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[Q=marias734] KC “non-authorized” owners are those that purchase on the resale market versus those that purchased directly from developer eg westin now Vistana Who are described as “authorized” owners Hope that clarifies[/Q] You may be correct, but I am unconvinced. "Non-authorized deeded owner" is a very strange contradiction in terms. A deed is a legal instrument reflecting officially recorded ownership, regardless of the system (or any subsequent mergers or takeovers regarding that system). A valid, recorded deed cannot just be unilaterally "voided" and a valid, recorded deed is equally valid whether the "grantee" (i.e., the current owner) acquired that ownership via the resale market or directly from a developer. A recorded deed is equally valid in either case; resale vs. developer-direct means absolutely nothing in regard to a deed's validity. I'm not at all comprehending the reference to "[b]non authorized deeded owners"[/b] --- regardless of what corporation(s) or developer(s) may be involved. Deeded ownership is deeded ownership; there are no "different status levels" or any other distinctions in legal status between developer direct and resale [b]deeded ownership[/b]. That said, slimy Westgate has found a way to devalue all resale Westgate ownerships, but it has nothing at all to do with deed validity. Westgate has chosen to impose different (and very restrictive) reservation procedures and rules upon Westgate resale owners. Maybe the OP "deed" reference was intended as a reference to a "points" contract, or a "membership" of some sort, or a RTU contract; [b]none[/b] of which actually involve any [b]deeded ownership[/b] at all.